ON
THE CONTINUOUS DEVALUATION OF THE ROMAN CURRENCY
B. Lukács
CRIP RMKI
H-1525 Bp. 114. Pf. 49.,
lukacs@rmki.kfki.hu
ABSTRACT
Roman inflation in Imperial times is a test
on various theories about inflation. Roman currency was based on silver, immune
to inflation, while social & budget problems, leading in modern times to
inflation, were present since
1. INTRODUCTION
Economics as a science
is rather equivocal about the importance of the value of the currency unit. However economics is unequivocal
about the expert status of Hungarians about inflation.
Then, this story is
generally the illustration of the essentially nominal nature of modern paper
currencies. State can do almost anything with them and there is a general
tendency to inflate them (although there are some news
about Japanese Yen just deflating). This would be impossible with a currency of
noble metal (says Economy).
Indeed, look at the
English pound. Originally it was a golden coin. At the end of XVIIIth century pound existed only in banknotes, but the guinea, a coin of
21 shillings, remained of gold. (One pound was 20 shilliings.)
With the exception of years around World War I the pound was convertible to
gold until the Big Depression in 1929-33; and see Fig. 1 showing that there is
no important difference between the "real value" of pound in 1661
& 1931. I would not go into the details of the calculation of such a
"real value"; the principle is the same as the "tourist parity"
of two currencies: you form a "basket of goods" acceptable in both
societies, and calculate both prices of the basket. Readers can consult with
Ref. [2] about the details for English pound.
Also you can see the
exponential inflation of pound after World War II. And note that Hungarian
experts of the famous Hungarian inflation Lords Káldor
& Balogh were the experts of British Labour,
taking the Government in 1945.
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Obviously such an inflation would be impossible with a gold/silver
currency. With a silver money, money has its own
substantial & natural value.
And now I am going to
show an example for long-range substantial inflation of a currency of noble
metal: the Roman denarius. The case is extremely
well-documented, with hoards of surviving coinr and
with ancient written documents.
2. ON THE ECONOMIC
THERMODYNAMICS OF BRODY, MARTINAS AND SAJO, CORRECTED (OF COURSE) BY LUKACS
Money has a special
role in Economy. Marxist Political Economy (anything that might have been) was
fanatic about this, defining the special role as "general equivalent"
meaning that the currency is accepted for anything else, so making market
possible. Karl Marx formulated 5 points making currency (and especially
golden/silver currency) feasible and useful. I do not want here to discuss too
much this question; with all his shortcomings Marx was better & more
conservative economist than Keynes, and his 5 points are not absurd. I take
only 1 point: that the technology to get noble metals changes slowly, so
"roughly the same number of workhours" is
needed to produce a pound of pure gold for centuries. This is indeed so,
because of a number of physical facts.
Let us restrict our
attention to 3 metals, Cu, Ag & Au. All are in the first column of the
Periodic Table, so in some aspect analogons of each
other. Namely, all three have a single electron on the outmost shell, therefore
they are all good electric conductors; but this fact is unimportant for
finance. They are mutually quite well mix to form alloys. These alloys are also
much used. Gold+silver is electron (! really), and
was used for Earth's first real coins in
Atomic Number and Specific Gravity.
For both the sequence is Cu<Ag<Au. All of them are fairly heavy. Because
of the sequence, Au is the rarest, because at 1 sec < t < 106
sec, 13 billion (USA) years ago, in primodial nucleosynthesis, everything started from H, and later, in
cores of stars, the processes started from H & He [3]
Electric & Thermal Conductivity.
Because of the only electron on the outernmost shell
all of them conduct quite well. Explanation is a routine in solid state physics, see e.g. Ref. [4]. Ag is the world recorder.
Colour. Cu is red, Au is yellow. Ag is quite white. This is not
really a difference of principle. All three have smooth reflection spectra
(expected from the metallic structure, common π-electrons,
Standard Potential. The sequence
is Cu<Ag<Au. They react in opposite sequence with free oxygen. Water does
not corrode them, because hydrogen is more bound to oxigen
than to them.
The above qualitative
properties are given quantitatively in Table 1.
Metal |
Atomic weight |
Spec. Grav. g/cm3 |
Conduct. electr.* |
Cond. th.* |
St. pot, V |
Cu |
63.54 |
8.9 |
94.4 |
88.6 |
+0.34 |
Ag |
107.88 |
10.5 |
100 |
100 |
+0.80 |
Au |
197.0 |
19.3 |
67.2 |
69.6 |
+1.38 |
Table 1. Characteristic data for 3 Column 1 metals. *:
Normalised to Ag=100.
Now you can see.
Copper, silver and gold are 3 variations to the same theme; gold is rarest,
densest, most colourful and chemically most stable. In addition it is softest,
so practically unfit for tools. Therefore it is best for jewellery; and for general equivalent.
But this suggests that
very probably gold was the First Metal [5]. Without any chemistry at all,
colourful & inert gold was found in nuggets first. You may argue if the
second was moderately abundant and quite colourful copper, relatively rare
however in metallic state, or much less abundant and white, but much more
frequently metallic silver. We do know that the Au/Ag parity was in Old Ancient
Ages 8, in Classical Ancient Ages 12, and now ~100. Indeed, some guesses exist
that during the Old Empire of Egypt silver might have been more expensive than
gold, and that might have been the reason for the name of the Egyptian
Treasury: The Silver House. This may or may not be correct.
However, the
technology to produce gold did not
change too much from Late Neolithe to Middle Ages. You were looking for native golden veins, or
you washed riverine sand using sheepskin, as the
Argonauts. The tremendous technological development between 6000 BC and 1500 AD
led only a slow decrease of work hours/troy ounce of gold, while Copper &
Bronze Ages developed the production of copper from ores, and Middle Ages the
same for silver. And, while native copper is not unheard of, bound copper is
more by orders of magnitude in Earth's crust than the metallic one.
But even gold is an
industrial product. In principle, gold was similar to bronze, produced from raw
material (e.g. from the rock). In the same time, in modern economic theories
Money is something special, while in Ancient Ages Economics was not a
quantitative enough theory [6]. Fortunately, Thermodynamic Economics of Bródy, Martinás & Sajó [7] has the appropriate form to handle just this
problem. To be sure, Ref. [7] had some inconsistencies which Martinás forbad to discuss for me, so I had to correct them
in another paper [8], and so you should read refs. [7] & [8] together (not
a problem; if you can get [7], you can get [8] as well), but still the
formalism is good to understand Inflation.
There is a National
Economy. What are the macroscopic quantities to describe the actual Wealth of
the Nation?
Obviously you can
select a set of commodities Ni. You can
either take the yearly productions or the actual quantities; the second is
better but the first is easier to be done. Also, you must take the total
population P using the commodities, or a part of it, the labour force L. (Ref.
[7] neglects P. In contemporary First and Second World Economies P is almost
constant, and you may ignore a constant extensive.) And, of course, there is Money M.
So you have the set
{(P), M, Ni} (1)
Now, there is a Wealth. It is more or less the Sum of Average of the
individual well-beings, so a homogeneous
linear or of homogeneously first order function of all variables, S, so
S = S(P,
M, Ni) (2)
S = XR∂S/∂XR (3)
XI = {P,M, Ni}, I=ř,0,i (4)
where, and henceforth, the
Einstein convention is used: there is a summation for occurring twice, above
and below.
We do not know a
priori the form of the function S(P,M,Ni). Surely it changes from society to society. However, eqs. (1-4) are homologous to Thermodynamics. The
missing 2nd Law can be got by an
evolutionary reasoning:
The Society will
prefer processes advantageous for the Society. So, except for negligible
fluctuations, S will not decrease:
δS≥0 (5)
for some processes analogous to adiabatic ones.
Surely δS=0 for pure commerce.
Now, surely, the form
of the utility function (2) should be
a goal of social "sciences"; instead of they have some superstitions,
leading to political differences. For any case, the second derivatives must
form a negative semidefinite
matrix, otherwise instabilities occur and the state is impossible for any
reasonable time length (a situation well known in the theory of phase
transitions). The negative semidefinitivity is well
known in economics too: "the second dish of soup worths
less".
You can form first
derivatives of S as well. From thermodynamic analogy we can write:
YI = ∂S/∂XI (6)
Now, for I=0 we get an equation very important for the European Union,
containing information about the reproduction of manpower or population; but
that would be another study. For I≥1 we get:
-µi/T
= ∂S/∂Ni (7)
for I=0
1/T =
∂S/∂M (8)
and for I=ř:
1/T = ∂S/∂M (9)
which you may simply read as
definitions for µi and T.
Subsystems in contact
of course (behind this phrase is Second Law) will equilibrate T & µi. So there are "natural" market prices and a natural 1/T in the society.
For further
discussions we must see the dimensions of XI and YI. That
is simple enough.
Eq.
(1) defines XI. I ignore here P. Ni
is measured in natural units. So if
we are concerned with raw iron, then the unit is maybe ton of raw iron, and if
it is sheepskin then it is number of sheepskins. N0≡M needs a discussion; but currency has a
currency unit. So it is HUF; or, in exotic countries, maybe US$.
Now let us see the
intensives YI. Eq. (3) shows that YI
times XI must have the same dimension as S, utility. S may be
dimensionless (for simplicity I choose this), or may have a definite dimension
well argumented.
Now,
from eqs. (2-5),
µi
= -∂S/∂Ni/(∂S/∂M) (9)
[8]. So you can see the following:
Assume that a State
redefines her currency unit by cutting zeros. This was done in the sixties be
Soviet
But then 1/T is the
utility of a currency unit; by other word the "purchasing power". If
you have one plus HUF, you are "better off"; 1/T tells, how much so.
Now, imagine that M is
a paper money. Then State can do anything.
She may define M in a time-dependent way, for example, and then there is
problem (with the thermodynamic formalism [8]).
However, assume that M
is on silver base. Then the unit of M is a canonical silver unit, say, of
weight one ounce (troy or not).
And now let us see.
3. ROMAN MONETARY HISTORY
We know that for a
long time Romans had simply weighted metal in the purchase. The Twelve Tables
write about scales in purchase. Also it seems that the main commodity to be
weighted was copper (aes means metal; but almost
always copper metal). Then the developing Republic introduces standardised
money.
The monetary history
of
It seems that the
first standardised money was one pound of copper. Note that one
"pound", libra, is only 327 gram or 12
ounces. It seems that the money of
This monetary system,
however, was not good for foreign trade. So in 268 BC the cosmopolitan Republic
introduced a new unit. As coins had been reduced to third in weight; but 10 new
asses were exchanged into a silver denarius, meaning simply
10-piece. Since denarius is a silver coin, foreign
merchants will accept it. For order of magnitude it is similar of a drachm (Attic or not); but even Cosmopolitan Romans are not
so cosmopolitan as to introduce Greek units. From now denarius
will be the unit.
The Republican denarius had its weight just above 1 gram, and was 90+ %
silver. The small percentage copper is for durability.
In 211 BC a small
monetary reform happened (during the Second Punic War). The denarius'
weight went down by a few percents, and the as' one substantially. From that
time the as was just 1 ounce of copper; and 16 asses gave a denarius,
not 10.
Then comes the Imperium, the social tasks (all Roman citizens have the
right for sharing something; wheat? ludus circensis? lots of lands outside
Copper coins are
minted by the Senate, silver ones by the Emperor, but there is (should be) a
constant rate between them. What happens, if the Emperor increases the copper
content of the silver coins?
In
first approximation nothing.
Only really substantial copper admixture can
be seen in silver. No doubt, because of the electron shell similarities
between silver & copper.
Fig. 2 is a graph for
the weight and silver content of the technically
dominant coin. But first I must tell what is not seen. The solid curve is
the denarius until Emperors Pupienus
& Balbinus, although Caracalla
in 215 introduced the radiate antoninianus. (It
always showed a portrait of the Emperor, with radiating rays around his head.)
You can see that the weight of the denarius coin
decreased very slowly, but its purity decreased faster from Traian.
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It is told that Caracalla introduced the antoninianus
as a dirty trick: he declared that it was 2 denarii
worth, but it did not contain the metal value of 2. (Otherwise still the units
of the early principate were used, [13], [14].) With
this trick Caracalla introduced practically a double
standard, and since in Economic Thermodynamic Money M has the role of Energy E,
such economies are the analogons of the rather exotic
physical systems having two internal
energies. The most familiar such system is the LiF
crystal: one energy builds up from the lattice
oscillations, the other from the nuclear magnetic momenta
in the lattice points [15]. There is very weak coupling between, so the two
different temperatures can be demonstrated even for a minute. Modern economy
with a double metal standard worked at the end of 1860's in the Double Monarchy
of Austria and
Heliogabalus
in 219 demonetized the antoninianus coin, but Pupienus & Balbinus
reintroduced it in 238, and henceforth the antoninianus
was the fundamental coin. Denarius still continued
for a while as the change for antoninianus; and
anyways as a legal unit. So an antonianus was 2 denarii worth.
However this antoninianus lost in 35 years some 40 % of its weight; and,
what is more, its "purity" went down to 2.5 (!) %.
A coin containing 2.5
% silver and 97.5 % copper is still a silver coin because
1) it
is minted under the auspices of the Emperor, not of the Senate;
2) if
you put the fresh coins into a barrel filled with seawater, the surface will be
somewhat silvery. (From the surface layer seawater or very weak acids solve out
some copper, as if the coin were coated with silver; but the physical process is
"coating with negative copper). So the freshly issued radiate antoniniani were silver coins enough [16]; State did not
take any responsibility for later handling.
But of course Emperors
knew what were they doing; and greater Emperors felt some shame. Philippus Arabs, under whom the millenial
demonstrations of
As for a general
overview just before Diocletian's Monetary Edict, so, say, in the spring of
301, the different official monetary units were officially exchanged as:
1 argenteus
(pure silver) = 4 nummi
1 nummus
= 5 radiates (antoniniani)
1 antoninianus
= 2.5 denarii
but the system was based on the nummus. Then the Monetary Edict devaluated the denarius by half, so after it 1 nummus
was 25 denarii [17], [18].
It remained so until
320, when Constantine I, another reorganisator of the
Empire, minted again good silver coins, the argenteus,
as
1 argenteus
(3.36 g, good silver) = 12 nummi (a few % silver)
1 nummus
= 25 denarii (practically nonexistent)
It is pointless to
continue.
4. ON METAL VALUES
Now let us stop for a
moment. We know lots of coins; the weights and purities reported in books can
be checked by measurements. So we can see if the system was self-consistent or
not.
Diocletian's argenteus is told to have been 99 % silver and of 1/96 of a
Roman pound, while his rather coppery nummus was 1/32
of a Roman pound. Silver/copper parity is told for ancient times 51 [11].
So a nummus coin had the thrice of the weight of the argenteus, while the argenteus
was 4 nummi. Is it possible?
Let us use the weight
of an argenteus as unit, and let us calculate in
silver.. Then the real (metal) values of the coins are
as follows.
1 real argenteus had the value in ideal argenteus
as
0.99 + 0.01/51
Now the nummus has in it x silver and 1-x
copper. So its value is
3*(x + (1-x)/51)
Since we know that the nummus was 1/4 worth,
hence we get to the silver content x that
x = 0.0642
Instead, the sources tell that Diocletian's nummus
contained 5 % silver, not 6.42 %. Then either the measurements are not exact,
or really the mint stole some silver. However the difference is not big. Money
still had its metal value, more or less.
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Fig. 3: Golden coins of
Now, gold/silver
parity is reconstructed as 12. (This number is often repeated, now I used
[11].) Diocletian issued aurei, 1/60 pound. Then the
metal value of an aureus expressed in argentei seems to have been
12*(96/60) = 19.2
while it seems that it was
exchanged for 24. Either there was Double Standard, or we do not know correctly
the gold/silver parity! If parity had been 12, it would have meant that gold
coins were overvalued. So then if one got gold coins from State, he was tempted
to change it into silver; but banks were not state-owned. So what happened with
the gold accumulating in banks? Did they sell back to State on official rates?
What does it mean that the gold/silver parity was 12?
In a variant of
Diocletian's Price List (his Monetary Edicts vary somewhat) it is stated that
the price of 1 pound gold is 50,000 denarii. Let us
calculate.
One pound silver is coined into 96 argentei of Diocletian, each the equivalent of 50 denarii in 301. So that is 4800 denarii
for a pound of silver. With the gold/silver parity 12 then a pound of gold
should have been 57,600 denarii, not 50,000.
In this case the gold
seems undervalued, but for this there
is an easy explanation. Maybe the silver coin (really the argenteus,
not the debased nummus or the virtual denarius) was more worthy than its metal value; we are in
agreement with the gold price mentioned if the silver coin was valuated 1.152
of its metal value. Of course, you cannot exchange a silver coin of 1/96 pound
weight for 12/96 pound of silver; such an exchange would not be reversible, so
economic utility S would change, so it would not be pure commerce. Namely after
the purchase you are there with the silver. Now you try to reverse the
situation via another market process, but clearly, nobody will give you an argenteus for the silver
of the argenteus. Two things are missing. First the
minting process, which have its own expenses. Second, the right to
manufacture the coin. The State can make income from the monopoly.
So we can guess that
the purchase value of the silver currency was some 15 % higher, than the metal
value. That is not yet paper money.
And nobody (I mean,
neither I, not Martinás, Bródy
or Sajó) ever required that money-making be a reversible process in
Economic Thermodynamics. Pure commerce should be, otherwise e.g. the Gibbs-Duhem Relation does not hold, so S(XI)
will not be homogeneous linear, or something equally catastrophic happens. But
minting is not pure commerce. It is production; pure commerce happens by
means already existing coins.
5. SO WAS INFLATION IN
Now the question is:
did the Roman economy exhibit inflationary tendencies or not? On one hand there
were tendencies in the society which
in modern states result in serious inflation. On the other, the currency was
not fictive; it was based essentially on the metal value of the coins; and how
could inflation go by if the currency is based on something of real value?
Of course, there is a
correct theoretical answer, which is, however, not operative. In [8] I treated
the question of inflation. Inflation means a time-dependent measuring unit of Money. Note that in Economic
Thermodynamics all other variables have natural units [7]. Now, in any thermodynamics-like
formalism the fundamental form of the thermodynamic potential S(XI) has
to be explicitly time-independent; otherwise the Gibbs-Duhem
Relation would not hold. With paper currency, of course, State can govern the
scale at will, so it can quite be time-dependent.
Now, assume that for
an economy you have time series of all important market prices. Then there is a
scheme to calculate S(XI); if the equations
are not integrable, then some Axiom does not hold (no
Thermodynamics) or we just use a time-dependent unit for Money. Then we can
look for a time-dependent rescaling. When the Gibbs-Duhem
Relation becomes OK, you just have the inflation-free “true” scale of money, so
you got the scale of inflation too [8].
We have one very
detailed price list from 301 AD, in Diocletian's Edict, and a great mass of
accidental and sometimes inconsistent data dispersed along centuries, mainly
but not exclusively, for food. I do not know if it were enough to reconstruct
the form of the utility function S(XI); but
definitely I cannot do it now. But
not so theoretical but still approximate methods are possible.
For example you can
construct Consumers' Baskets. Take an average family, and sum up their
consumption, say, for a year. Some bread, some meat, some wine, some oil, some
clothing &c. Then you may calculate the prices of that consumption twice,
in different times or in different countries. I mention here a still
unpublished result telling that using a moderate Consumer's Basket constructed
for Romans of the time of Diocletian, but evaluated also for Hungary in 1992
the result was that 1 denarius from Diocletian's time
would have amounted 3.06 HUF of 1992.
Of course, the method
has its problems when used along too big time. There is an example of Bródy [19]. Imagine that you can calculate a Hungarian
inflation rate between second halves of XIXth and XXth
century, or the change of wealth. You can form a Basket in 1870, and can
evaluate its price in 1870 and in 1970. However if you form a Basket
representative for 1970, some items you find nonexistent in 1870. Or, backwards, the 1970 Basket contains a
wretched aluminium pot, but that pot had extraordinary
price in 1870; then aluminium was still a metal for jewellery.
Still you can compare
prices of Baskets for small steps in time, and then we can integrate up. For
this, however, sociology is needed, so here I make an even simpler approach. We
have seen that the value of Roman money was still near to its metal value. So I
calculate the metal values of the Roman denarius from
the First Punic War to Constantine I, and normalise it in such a way that the
211 BC denarius be the unit. The result is seen as
Fig. 4.
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You can see the
accelerating loss of value in the IIIrd century AD. Such a curve is
rather indistinguishable from inflation, while the currency is based on its
real, metal value. How was it possible?
The main tricks were
told above or are seen from the curves. In principle it was difficult to
diminish the weight, that being an integer ratio of pound or ounce; still it
decreased, very slowly. But it was simple enough to substitute some silver with
copper. Within a few years you cannot make a change from 80 % silver to 50 %, that could be detected even with 3rd century
chemistry; but you can change from 80 % to 76 % and no scandal will happen.
Emperors did this; and when the summed result was too much, they introduced a
new denomination.
The final result is
Fig. 4; a more
than 2 orders of magnitude debasement in 2 centuries between Traian & Diocletian. European historians before the
last World War made the fate of the sestertius & denarius a laughingstock. And now?
English pound is
continuous from Middle Ages, and the price indices
between 1661 & 1931 differed a mere 3 %. And now?
In early books of P. G. Wodehouse protagonists borrow
ten shillings and have problems to pay back. Italian lira was continuous
through World War II, but the 10 lira coin was a substantial silver piece in
the 30's, while you practically could not buy anything with a 10 lira coin in
the 80's. As for
6. ROMAN INFLATION: WHY JUST
IN THIRD CENTURY?
Historia
est magistra
vitae. It is hard to doubt that
the process we see in IIIrd century
Many different
explanations exist for inflation. Some of the possible reasons did not exist in
ancient
Surely inflation
offers a short-range solution for State in fiscal problems. Then: what is
common between late XXth century Developed
Word and IIIrd century
Obviously, I do not
know the answer. If I knew, I would send this study to a respectable economic
(or thermodynamic) journal. However I can disprove some popular opinions.
For example, for first
sight it seems a neat explanation that inflation comes from redistribution. The
idea arguments that if there is massive redistribution, then there is more
demand than goods. This results in deficit of the budget, and the simplest
way to make financial balance is to make more money. Generally only State can
make new money; so if State has paper money, they simply print too much. Then
there is more Money than goods on the market, so the equilibrium prices go up.
With silver money this way is not so simple; but adding abundant copper to
silver, State (Mint) can produce more "silver" coins than in previous
year.
Now, I do not doubt
that this was/is an important factor in late XXth
century World Economy. E.g. look at Fig. 1.
What about other
players of World War II?
Well, let us remain at
Good; and then go back
first to Late Republican Rome. All male adult citizens voted. OK, lawmaker
votes were not proportional; e.g. knights formed roughly tenth of the voting centurias, while they were much less than 10 % of the
population. But even then, poor citizens were quite populous and we learnt
about the turbulent events, the deaths of the two Gracchus
brothers in almost internecine war situations, the civil wars of followers of
Marius & Sulla, the Catilina revolt, then Caesar's campaign against Pompeius.
During this the warring factions needed to buy followers.
In addition, propertiless proletarians were part-owners of the State of
Rome. When
Then came the Principate of
conservative Augustus, tyrant Tiberius, mad Caligula who believed himself a god
greater than Jupiter, contradictory Claudius, mad Nero, then a year of civil
wars, &c. And after such a century, in 82 AD the denarius
is at 84 % of its Republican value!
Roman IInd century was also the time of stable denarius. "Good emperors" rule from Nerva to Marcus Aurelius, so between 96 and 180. The
"good emperors" redistributed a lot, there was not too much social
conflict, but in 180 the denarius had 85 % of its
value in 96!
That is no inflation
at all either in IIIrd century or in XXth
century standards. If silver standard prevents inflation, why did it not
prevent in IIIrd century? If populism leads to
inflation, why did it not lead to in
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
I acknowledge
discussions & calculations with Dr. M. Banai in
1993, and also discussions with Dr. K. Martinás about
Economic Thermodynamics until 1985, when she simply forbad me to discuss the
topics with her and with Dr. A. Bródy.
REFERENCES
[1] McWhirter N.: Guiness
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[2] The Economist,
[3] Fáy Nóra
& Lukács B.: Sphaerula 1, 117 (1997)
[4] Kittel Ch.: Introduction to
[5] Asimov
[6] Aristotle
of Stageira: Oeconomica Bk N° 1343a1 – 1353b26. The Complete Works of Aristotle, ed. by
J. Barnes,
[7] Bródy A., Martinás
K. & Sajó
K.: Acta Oec. 35, 337 (1985)
[8] Lukács B.: Acta
Oec. 41,
181 (1989)
[9] Harl K. W.: Coinage in the Roman
Economy from 300 BC to AD 700.
[10] Zamarovsky
V.: Dejiny psané Rímem. Mladá fronta,
[11] ***: http://homepage/uibk.ac.at/homepage/c614/c61404/k410-aaa.html
[12] Schroer
G. T.: http://ancient-coin-forum.com/ancient_coin_articles/Denarius.htm
[13] Cassius Dio: Rhomaike historia.
U. Ph. Boissevain (ed.),
[14] Buttrey
T. V.: JRS 51, 40 (1961)
[15] Purcell E. M. &
Pound R. V.: Phys. Rev. 81, 279
(1951)
[16] Kern J. K.:
http://www.romancoin.com/order/show16.html
[17] Sutherland C. H. V.: JRS
51, 94 (1961)
[18] Erim
K. & al.: JRS 61, 173 (1971)
[19] Bródy
A.: Lassuló idô. Közgazdasági és Jogi Kiadó,
My HomePage, with some other studies, if you are curious.